Proof of Various Derivative Properties — Question 6

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Question 6

Assume that ff is differentiable at x=ax=a and that f′(a)=0f'(a)=0. Prove that limx→af(x)−f(a)x−a=0.\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}=0.

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Question 6 - Solution

By the definition of the derivative, f′(a)=limx→af(x)−f(a)x−a.f'(a)=\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}.

We are given that f′(a)=0.f'(a)=0.

Thus, limx→af(x)−f(a)x−a=0.\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}=0.

To make this explicit using ε\varepsilon–δ\delta language, let ε>0\varepsilon>0 be given.

Since the limit defining f′(a)f'(a) exists and equals 00, there exists δ>0\delta>0 such that whenever 0<|x−a|<δ,0<|x-a|<\delta, we have |f(x)−f(a)x−a−0|<ε.\left|\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}-0\right|<\varepsilon.

That is, |f(x)−f(a)x−a|<ε.\left|\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\right|<\varepsilon.

This proves that limx→af(x)−f(a)x−a=0.\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}=0.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 7-2-006

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