Proof of Various Integral Properties — Question 3

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Question 3

Assume that ff is integrable on [a,b][a,b] and that a<ba<b. Prove that ∫aaf(x)dx=0.\int_a^a f(x)\,dx = 0.

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Question 3 - Solution

We use the definition of the definite integral in terms of Riemann sums.

Consider the interval [a,a][a,a]. Any partition of this interval consists of a single point: a=x0=x1.a=x_0=x_1.

The width of the subinterval is Δx=x1−x0=a−a=0.\Delta x = x_1-x_0 = a-a = 0.

Choose any sample point x*x^* in the interval [a,a][a,a].

A Riemann sum for ff over [a,a][a,a] is ∑f(x*)Δx=f(x*)⋅0=0.\sum f(x^*)\,\Delta x = f(x^*)\cdot 0 = 0.

Since every Riemann sum over [a,a][a,a] equals 00, the limit of the Riemann sums exists and equals 00.

By definition of the definite integral, ∫aaf(x)dx=0.\int_a^a f(x)\,dx = 0.

∫aaf(x)dx=0\boxed{\int_a^a f(x)\,dx = 0}

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 7-5-003

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