Final Thoughts — Question 7

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Question 7

Consider the IVP y′=0y'=0, y(0)=0y(0)=0 and the functions u(x)=0,v(x)={0,x≤0,e−1/x2,x>0.u(x)=0,\qquad v(x)=\begin{cases}0,&x\le 0,\\e^{-1/x^2},&x>0.\end{cases} You may use the fact that vv is infinitely differentiable on ℝ\mathbb R and that v(n)(0)=0v^{(n)}(0)=0 for every integer n≥0n\ge 0.

Tasks

  1. Determine the Taylor series at 00 for both functions, using the given derivative information.

  2. Calculate v′(x)v'(x) for x>0x>0 and decide whether vv solves the IVP on any open interval containing 00.

  3. Prove that uu is the only solution of the IVP on an interval containing 00.

  4. Explain why agreement of every derivative at a single point does not contradict your conclusion. Distinguish a smooth function from one known to equal its Taylor series near that point.

Original worksheet page 1: question and worked solution for 1-3-007
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Question 7 – Solution

Strategy. Use interval verification for the ODE. Infinite-order agreement at one point is still pointwise information unless convergence to the function is established.

Step 1: Identical Taylor coefficients. For both functions, every derivative at zero is zero, so both Taylor series are ∑n=0∞0n!xn=0.\boxed{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{0}{n!}x^n=0.} This describes the series built from the derivatives; it does not yet assert that the series represents either function away from zero.

Step 2: The equation fails to the right. For x>0x>0, the chain rule gives v′(x)=2x3e−1/x2>0.\boxed{v'(x)=\frac{2}{x^3}e^{-1/x^2}>0.} Every open interval containing 00 includes positive xx, where the required identity v′=0v'=0 fails. Thus vv does not solve this IVP on such an interval, despite satisfying the initial value and having every derivative there equal to those of uu.

Step 3: Uniqueness directly. If y′=0y'=0 on an interval, the Mean Value Theorem implies that yy is constant on that interval. The initial value forces that constant to be zero. Hence y≡0 is the unique IVP solution.\boxed{y\equiv 0\text{ is the unique IVP solution.}}

Step 4: Smoothness versus a series representation. Smoothness means the derivatives of all orders exist and are continuous. A function is analytic at a point if it equals its Taylor series in some neighborhood of that point. The supplied vv is smooth but not analytic at 00: its Taylor series is zero, whereas v(x)>0v(x)>0 for every x>0x>0. Agreement of derivatives at a single point therefore does not replace the interval identity required by the ODE.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 1-3-007

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