Fourier Sine Series — Question 6

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Question 6

For 0<x<π0<x<\pi, the sine series of f(x)=xf(x)=x is x=2∑n=1∞(−1)n+1nsin⁡(nx).x=2\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n\sin(nx). Its partial sums converge to ff in L2(0,π)L^2(0,\pi) as well as pointwise inside. Here ∥g∥2=(∫0π|g|2dx)1/2\|g\|_2=(\int_0^\pi|g|^2dx)^{1/2}.

Tasks

  1. Form the series obtained by formally differentiating once. Test the necessary term-to-zero condition at x=π/2x=\pi/2 and decide whether the formal differentiation is valid there.

  2. Integrate each finite partial sum from zero to xx. Use Cauchy–Schwarz and the given L2L^2 convergence to justify passing to the limit uniformly for 0≤x≤π0\leq x\leq\pi.

  3. Derive the resulting cosine identity for x2/2x^2/2, including both endpoints. Give a uniform tail bound for this integrated series.

  4. Evaluate the identity at x=πx=\pi to sum the reciprocal squares of the positive odd integers. Explain why integration is justified here while the attempted differentiation fails.

Original worksheet page 1: question and worked solution for 8-4-006
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Question 6 – Solution

Strategy. Test the operation itself: differentiating weakens coefficient decay, while integration improves it.

Step 1: Reject the formal derivative at a specific point. Formal differentiation produces 2∑n≥1(−1)n+1cos⁡(nx).2\sum_{n\geq 1}(-1)^{n+1}\cos(nx). At x=π/2x=\pi/2, the even-indexed terms have magnitude two and do not tend to zero. Thus this series diverges there and cannot be a valid ordinary termwise derivative representation of f′=1f'=1.

Step 2: Pass from finite integrals to the limit. For each finite sum SNS_N, direct integration gives ∫0xSN(t)dt=2∑n=1N(−1)n+1n2(1−cos⁡nx).\int_0^x S_N(t)dt=2\sum_{n=1}^N\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}(1-\cos nx). Cauchy–Schwarz yields |∫0x(SN−f)dt|≤x∥SN−f∥2≤π∥SN−f∥2→0|\int_0^x(S_N-f)dt|\leq\sqrt{x}\,\|S_N-f\|_2 \leq\sqrt\pi\,\|S_N-f\|_2\to 0. This bound is independent of xx, proving uniform convergence of the integrals.

Step 3: State the integrated identity and its error. Consequently x22=2∑n=1∞(−1)n+1n2(1−cos⁡nx),0≤x≤π.\boxed{\frac{x^2}{2}=2\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}(1-\cos nx),\qquad 0\leq x\leq\pi.} The tail is bounded uniformly by 4∑n>Nn−2≤4/N4\sum_{n>N}n^{-2}\leq 4/N. This also proves absolute uniform convergence of the integrated series. At zero both sides vanish; the right endpoint is included by the uniform integral argument, despite the original sine mismatch.

Step 4: Evaluate at the right endpoint. At x=πx=\pi the even terms vanish and each odd term contributes 4/n24/n^2. Hence π2/2=4∑j≥0(2j+1)−2\pi^2/2=4\sum_{j\geq 0}(2j+1)^{-2}, giving ∑j≥0(2j+1)−2=π2/8\boxed{\sum_{j\geq 0}(2j+1)^{-2}=\pi^2/8}. The integration has a proved limiting argument and summable coefficients; the differentiated series fails even a necessary condition for convergence.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 8-4-006

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