Trig Functions — Question 9

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Question 9

Let f(x)=tan⁡(x)−sec⁡(x)f(x) = \tan(x) - \sec(x)

  • (a) Show that f(x)=sin⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)f(x) = \frac{\sin(x) - 1}{\cos(x)}

  • (b) Determine the values of x∈(0,2π)x \in (0, 2\pi) for which f(x)=0f(x) = 0

  • (c) Analyze the behavior of f(x)f(x) near x=π2x = \frac{\pi}{2}

Original worksheet page 1: question and worked solution for 1-3-009
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Question 9 - Solution

(a) Simplify f(x)=tan⁡(x)−sec⁡(x)f(x) = \tan(x) - \sec(x):

We write both terms in terms of sine and cosine:

tan⁡(x)=sin⁡(x)cos⁡(x),sec⁡(x)=1cos⁡(x)\tan(x) = \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}, \quad \sec(x) = \frac{1}{\cos(x)}

Then: f(x)=sin⁡(x)cos⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)=sin⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)f(x) = \frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)} - \frac{1}{\cos(x)} = \frac{\sin(x) - 1}{\cos(x)}

f(x)=sin⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)\boxed{f(x) = \frac{\sin(x) - 1}{\cos(x)}}

(b) Solve f(x)=0⇒sin⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)=0f(x) = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{\sin(x) - 1}{\cos(x)} = 0

This occurs when the numerator is 0 (and denominator is not 0):

sin⁡(x)−1=0⇒sin⁡(x)=1⇒x=π2\sin(x) - 1 = 0 \Rightarrow \sin(x) = 1 \Rightarrow x = \frac{\pi}{2}

But at x=π2x = \frac{\pi}{2}, cos⁡(x)=0\cos(x) = 0, so f(x)f(x) is undefined.

Therefore, there is no solution to f(x)=0f(x) = 0 on (0,2π)(0, 2\pi)

No solution in (0,2π)\boxed{\text{No solution in } (0, 2\pi)}

(c) Behavior near x=π2x = \frac{\pi}{2}

As x→π2−x \to \frac{\pi}{2}^{-}, we have: - sin⁡(x)→1\sin(x) \to 1 - cos⁡(x)→0+\cos(x) \to 0^+ - So: f(x)→1−10+=0f(x) \to \frac{1 - 1}{0^+} = 0

As x→π2+x \to \frac{\pi}{2}^{+}, we have: - sin⁡(x)→1\sin(x) \to 1 - cos⁡(x)→0−\cos(x) \to 0^- - So: f(x)→1−10−=0f(x) \to \frac{1 - 1}{0^-} = 0

But if we take xx very close to π2\frac{\pi}{2}, with small deviation, say: f(x)=sin⁡(x)−1cos⁡(x)⇒Numerator ≈0,Denominator →0f(x) = \frac{\sin(x) - 1}{\cos(x)} \Rightarrow \text{Numerator } \approx 0,\ \text{Denominator } \to 0

Apply L’Hôpital’s Rule: limx→π2f(x)=limx→π2cos⁡(x)−sin⁡(x)=0−1=0\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) = \lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos(x)}{-\sin(x)} = \frac{0}{-1} = 0

So: limx→π2f(x)=0\boxed{\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) = 0}

But since the function is undefined at x=π2x = \frac{\pi}{2}, the limit exists but the function is discontinuous there.

Original worksheet page 2: question and worked solution for 1-3-009

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